The Poor get Poorer...
By howhigh
@howhigh (757)
Canada
May 5, 2007 7:36pm CST
and the rich get richer.
Is this expression fair to anyone involved? Not all of the Poorer where ever apart of the poor and not all of the richer were ever apart of the rich. say if you take to sets of data.
Set A on Tuesday and Set B two months later.
So some people think this phrase expresses inequality but i would ask how? or rather what do you mean by wealth..
does this make sense to anyone?
1 response
@PsychoDude (2013)
• Netherlands
6 May 07
Quite honest? No it doesn't make much sense to me?
Are you trying to say that the rich get poorer as well and the poor get richer as well? If so I would say that is quite logical, but still many of the poor do not have the required resources to get set up so when compared to the richer part of the world they get richer less fast so relatively poorer. And in the same fashion many of the richer get relatively richer as well, although some which were in some sort of middle class might gear back towards the poor range.
1 person likes this
@howhigh (757)
• Canada
6 May 07
You make some good points but this expression typically expresses an inescapable inequality but in there is an inherent logical flaw in the problem that you and I note.
Accepting it is a very pessimistic view of life it is to say that you can only be richer if you were poor to begin with. Despite the fact that some people who are "rich" get richer. In extremes maybe this is true but for to gain useful insight on motivation in society the middle class is the doctrine to refute or deny for they are on the bud of being in control.
In life on from the individuals count there is always someone above and below us when you look at us as a whole we are all the same this expression is from the pessimistic individual.
