Has the Law been replaced?

I understand what your saying but I wonder why if it was like this before (Exo.12:48. And when a stranger shall sojourn with thee, and will keep the passover to the LORD, let all his males be circumcised, and then let him come near and keep it; and he shall be as one born in the land; for no uncircumcised person shall eat thereof. 49. One law shall be to him that is home born, and unto the stranger that sojourneth among you.) other scriptures speak the same thing, I wonder why later it had to be different when it worked just fine? How is there a ritual in restraining from murder, Jesus said in Mat. 5:18.( For verily I say unto you, till heaven and earth pass, one jot, or one tittle shall in no way pass from the law, till all be fulfilled. 19. Whosoever shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven; but whosoever shall do and teach them, shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven) and by his words in John 12:48 he said (he that rejecteth me, and receive not my words, hath one that judgeth him, the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day) these are very plain no changes that I see to the fact( James 1:10 For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point. he is guilty of all) this sounds the same as what Jesus taught but under Paul's teaching in Acts 9:7 it reads (And the men who journeyed with him stood speechless, hearing a voice but seeing no man.) but then in Acts 22:9 it reads( And they that were with me saw indeed the light, and were afraid; but they heard not the voice of him that spake with me) now this was supposed to have been written by Paul why is these two scriptures the opposite of each other and sounds like two different writers? what I mean is how can we trust this if it goes against what other teachings which have heavier wait and specifically declares no changes even in Acts 7:6 Stephen under the power of the spirit teaches that 75 came into Egypt but we know there were only 70 with Jacob, these things can't be both ways and I can assure you the Spirit don't make mistakes Deut. 12:32 explains (What thing soever I command you, observe to do it, thou shalt not add thereto, nor diminish from it. 13:1-3 ( If there rise among you a prophet, or a dreamer of dreams, and giveth thee a sign or a wonder. 2. And the sign or wonder come to past, Where of he spake unto thee saying, let us go after other gods, which thou has not known, and let us serve them. 3. Thou shalt not hearken unto the words of that prophet, or that dreamer of dreams, for the LORD your God proveth you, to know whether you love the LORD your God with all your heart and with all your soul.) now these are pretty serious statements to follow other gods is to follow other teachings which scripture verifies. Another place in Acts 28:17 Paul exclaims ( And it came to pass, that after three days Paul called the chief of the Jews together; and when they were come together, he said unto them, men and brethren, though I have committed nothing against the people, or customs of our fathers, yet was I delivered prisoner from Jerusalem into the hands of the Romans.) now since we've already read the scripture of the fathers, that all should be treated a like as to the stranger or home born as to circumcision and law, how can he say this? When he taught supposedly against this for Gentiles, but here we see him circumcising Timothy Acts 16:3 Him would Paul have to go forth with him; and took and circumcised him because of the Jews which were in those quarters; for they new all that his father was a Greek) what are we going to do with this? just scripture to ponder about and I welcome your thoughts I never want anyone think that I knock any others but welcome their thoughts and response as to greater learning Shalom