Are you convinced by the following algebra that 1 = 2?

@jxdos123 (122)
Hong Kong
July 11, 2008 8:07am CST
let a, b be integers a, b 0 let a = b ab = b^2 ab - a^2 = b^2 - a^2 a(b - a) = (b + a)(b - a) a = b + a a = a + a a = 2a 1 = 2
1 person likes this
2 responses
stvasile
@stvasile (7306)
• Romania
11 Jul 08
The mistake is done when you pass from a (b-a)= (b+a)(b-a) to a = b+a. If a=b (as you mentioned at the beginning), then b-a=0 so, when you divide the first equation by b-a, you divide by zero, and that is forbidden in algebra.
jxdos123
@jxdos123 (122)
• Hong Kong
12 Jul 08
well noticed.
1 person likes this
vorksholk
@vorksholk (122)
• United States
11 Jul 08
That does make sense, but it is impossible for 1 to just equal 2, don't you think?
jxdos123
@jxdos123 (122)
• Hong Kong
11 Jul 08
its up to u to notice the mistake.