One God
By Archaiwy
@Archaiwy (599)
China
September 10, 2010 10:39pm CST
Genesis 1:26 Then God said,"let us make man in our image, in our likeness,and let them rule over the fish of the sea and the birds of the air, over the livestock,over all the creatures that move along the ground."
Why it use "let us" and "in our ..." in here, since there is only one God.
Should not it use "let me" ;"in my ..." instead?
5 responses
@ccdiane (151)
• Cheyenne, Wyoming
13 Sep 10
Greetings,
I have noticed your discussion about "One God". I also read the responses and notice one information that was not given. So I would like to share with you the other part of the information.
Not only was God talking about Him and His son in Genesis 1:26 at the time of creation, the Holy Spirit was there as well. I'm sure there is more passages in the Bible that mentions this but right now I would like to give you Isaiah 48:16. It has always been from the beginning God the father, God the son and the Holy Spirit. All mighty God as one, manifest into three persons to us but still as one God. I hope I have helped you in some way to shed a little more light on your discussion.
Have wonderful and blessed day.
1 person likes this
@freethinkingagent (2501)
•
12 Sep 10
Because the word here that is translated God is the Hebrew word Elohim. It is a plural noun. It is used as a plural to show plentiful or Royal Sovereign. As in "We are Not amused". It is a Plural Statement with a singular masculine idea of a God full of power.
1 person likes this
@aerous (13434)
• Philippines
12 Sep 10
Spoke "let us" because he speaks with angels then that is why he says "let us" and "in our"...
Even do he is only one God. It doesn't mean that he cannot use "let me". He use it to emphasize of his personality...
If your good in grammar, you should not ask those things. Read carefully the bible and if you still not understand it. Find someone that explain it you...
Have a nice day!
@PastorP (1170)
• United States
14 Sep 10
freethinkingagent is correct. Also, if I understand it correctly, Gen. 1:1 God is Elohim (plural) but the verb is singular. This suggests to me Trinity, that God is one subsisting as Father, Son and Holy Spirit.
There's also neat interesting passages like Zech. 3:
Zec 3:2 And the LORD said unto Satan, The LORD rebuke thee, O Satan; even the LORD that hath chosen Jerusalem rebuke thee: is not this a brand plucked out of the fire?
Notice LORD (all caps) occurs three times. :-) All caps in KJ21 indicates Jehovah (or Yahweh if one prefers):
so...
Zec 3:2 And Jehovah said unto Satan, Jehovah rebuke thee, O Satan; even Jehovah that hath chosen Jerusalem rebuke thee: is not this a brand plucked out of the fire?
There's a few more in the OT.
God bless!
@formidexo (1351)
• Canada
11 Sep 10
Because when God created man he had already had created his son whom he used to perform the creation of man. So he was talking to his son. Read Proverbs chapter eight to understand this better and clearer. Let me know if that solves the mystery. Do you accept both the New and the Old Testament as the word of God?
@formidexo (1351)
• Canada
12 Sep 10
Right, the "me" is Jesus Christ in heaven before he came to earth and where he returned when his Father resurrected him.
Colossians 1:14-15 will explain more about Jesus' role in creation. So when God, in Genesis says "let us" He is speaking to Jesus. Does that make sense?
@Archaiwy (599)
• China
13 Sep 10
Yes, it is compatible to understand these verses. And I also accept this idea. The freethinkingagant's explanation below seems also reasonable. I am neither native English speaker nor hebrew. I do not know these words and do not know how the English edition was translated from Hebrew. Does these English words have such usage?
