What's the difference between "be to blame" and "to be blamed"?
By szz1990602
@szz1990602 (188)
China
October 19, 2011 9:30am CST
Hi mylotters, I'm a chinese. I am a rookie of English. This is one question I meet in process of learning English. You know, hardly can I see the passive usage of the word blame as "to be blamed", which seems to be more in accord with the grammar we accustom to. I really want to get the fine explanation from friends in Mylot and I would be appreciative for the responses from you. Thank you.
2 responses
@owlwings (43910)
• Cambridge, England
19 Oct 11
The difference between the expressions "He is to blame" and "He is to be blamed" is really quite subtle. The first means that the blame has already been assigned (or is evident now), the second means that the blame ought to be assigned or will be in the near future.
Compare it with "The play is performed at the XXX Theatre" and "The play is to be performed at the XXX Theatre". In the first, the performance is happening now (though maybe not at this precise moment); in the second, it will happen in the near future.
1 person likes this
@SpikeTheLobster (6403)
•
19 Oct 11
There's also the situation where both phrases mean exactly the same thing, although people are more likely to say "He is to blame" than "He is to be blamed" - the latter is a more literary form of the former. Depends on the context. (Just to make things more complicated!!)
@owlwings (43910)
• Cambridge, England
19 Oct 11
I agree, Spike. "He is to be blamed" is very often used to indicate that the person saying it is in some way distancing themselves from the responsibility of "blaming", in other words, it is slightly less of a direct accusation than "He is to blame" (which is a direct statement of 'fact'). The nuances of 'politeness' vary depending on the subject. If I say to someone "You are to blame for that.", it is a direct accusation or attribution of guilt; if I say "You are to be blamed for that." I may actually mean exactly the same but it is a 'kinder' way of saying it, because it somehow suggests that someone else will do the actual blaming.
@owlwings (43910)
• Cambridge, England
19 Oct 11
3honor has also given another valid way in which the two usages imply something slightly different - possibly because one naturally accords more respect to an adult than one does to a child but also in the sense that the adult SHOULD be responsible for their child's behaviour, so 'to be blamed' is more putative than 'to blame'.
@jjzone44 (917)
• United States
19 Oct 11
The difference between the two is predicated by the verb that would precede each one.
"be to blame" would be used as can be to blame. So it expresses a possibility, but not an absolute. Such as when 2 people are involved in an auto accident, either one can be to blame, for the accident.
But once evidence is gathered to confirm who is at fault, we use "to be blamed"
Driver A ran a red light and is to be blamed for the accident.
Hope that helps.
