What does it mean "Pure Language" ?
By mangtony7451
@mangtony7451 (479)
October 24, 2012 8:17pm CST
In the scripture of the prophet Zephaniah 3:9, it is written "For then will I turn to the people a PURE LANGUAGE, that they may all call upon the name of LORD, to serve him with one consent".
What could possibly be this Pure Language? Your thoughts, please.
1 person likes this
3 responses
@HILKIAH (2)
• Ciudad De Mexico, Mexico
16 Jul 13
PURE LANGUAGE MEANS HEBREW, ¡ YOD HEI VAV HEI ¡ IS HOW YOU SPELL HA KODESH SHEM ( THE PURE NAME OF YAHWEH ). TO TRULY UNDERSTAND THE SCRIPTURES SEEK INTERLINEAR BIBLE, AND THERE YOU WILL FIND: 1.- IN HEBREW WRITING, 2.- HOW IT IS PRONOUNCED, 3.- THE TRANSLITERATION OF THE PASAGE YOU ARE LOOKING FOR.
BARUCH HABBA BESHEM YAHWEH = YAHSHUA HA MASHIACH MALECH YISRAEL
SHALOM REYACHA
@mangtony7451 (479)
•
17 Jul 13
hi gian, greetiings. I am fascinated by your knowledge of hebrew language and for that I believe that you are a Mexican Jew or has hebrew roots and furthermore, having mentioned Yashua or Jesus, you are also a messianic Jew?
Interestingly, "today" there are more Jewish people that are turning to acknowledge the messiahship of Jesus of Nazareth than before.
Shalom...
@mangtony7451 (479)
•
22 Jul 13
@HILKIAH If you are not a jew, you must have enough knowledge of hebrew language. If not, you are just pretending to know hebrew by quoting a little of it. That's why, I mistaken you as jewish. Nonetheless, keep on trying hard.
@1hopefulman (45120)
• Canada
25 Oct 12
Zephaniah 3:9 Young's Literal Translation (YLT) 9 For then do I turn unto peoples a pure lip, To call all of them by the name of Jehovah, To serve Him [with] one shoulder.
The King James mistranslates many verses so the language is not so pure. This quotation is slightly different than the one you used. Can you figure out why this is a purer translation (a purer language) of that verse?
@mangtony7451 (479)
•
26 Oct 12
Hi 1hopefulman, greetings.
"Language" from the H8193= saphar/shephet was mentioned 173 times and has different meanings. The most common of these meanings are 1. lip, 2.language, 3.bank, 4. brim, 5. speech 6. etc. (Strong's and BDB Hebrew Definitions).
From here we can see which English translation uses any of the different meanings.You mentioned YLT, no doubt it preferred to used the meaning of "lip", I have no argument with that because it was listed. But to say that KJV mistranslate this one because it preferred to use the meaning of "language", and alleges that KJV mistranslate many verses so the language is not so pure, I think, it is going beyond something.
Have you tried to compare all English translation of the Bible which uses "lip" and which uses "language"? ASV, BBE, CEV, ERV, ISV, KJV, all used "language". YLT, DRB, LitV, all used "lip". You may want to add from here.
Now to the main issue. I personally believe that the Pure Language mentioned in Zep. 3:9 is a prophecy for a time to come when at the second coming of the Lord Jesus Christ to establish the kingdom of God on earth, A Pure Hebrew Language will be taught to all the people. Ultimately, language barrier will be just a thing of the past, then all people speak the same language, so that with one consent, one mind and heart, praises and worship God.
May God ushered that Blessed day.
All the best mangtony.
@1hopefulman (45120)
• Canada
26 Oct 12
Tony, look at the verse I quoted carefully as you missed a universal issue. Look at the verse carefully if you want to understand what the pure language is. The KJV made a huge mistake in translating that verse and so do most other translations. Have a blessed day! 
1 person likes this
@gitfiddleplayer (10362)
• United States
25 Oct 12
Pure language would be the cry of his people. It doesn't matter what tongue you speak in, when you cry out to the Lord, he hears you. Pure language also means that you are calling with a pure heart, nothing in it for yourself but it purity all to God. People often think it means they have to be perfect before they come to Christ because of their sin, he knows your sin, he is there to love you in spite of it.
@mangtony7451 (479)
•
26 Oct 12
Hi gitfiddleplayer greetings. Allow me to say your comment is very much appreciated. You have applied it both ways, literal as well as spiritual. Of course the former, is the very words and the cries you uttered, regardless of what tongue you used in communicating with God, and the latter is the purity of the heart in calling and coming to him.
This is all true in our present time. What if, Jesus come again to establish the Kingdom of God here on earth. For all we know Jesus was a Jew and he speaks Hebrew. All the righteous men and prophets of old will then be with Jesus Christ ruling together with him. Most if not all of these also speaks Hebrew. What if, the official language of the kingdom is Hebrew. Will you not be willing to learn the Pure Hebrew language?
Look at what will happened in the future for Egypt, "In that day shall five cities (gradual)in the land of Egypt speak the language of Canaan, and swear to the LORD of Hosts...(Isa. 19:18). The language of Canaan of course is Hebrew.
All the best mangtony.
