"she could sew the veil on properly in the morning", according to this sentence,"in the morning" doesn't mean "this morning", then, when was she expected to finish her sewing?

@dennislv (134)
Shanghai, China
October 11, 2013 11:02pm CST
I know "in the morning" is not the same as "this morning". "She could" here suggests an uncertain tense. However, I prefer it a subjunctive use. If so,then "in the morning" can be "tomorrow morning"? What is it talking about?
2 responses
@owlwings (43910)
• Cambridge, England
12 Oct 13
When the 'focus' or particular point of time referred to in the statement is any time of day after waking (even when it is 'now' still morning), "in the morning" usually indicates the morning immediately following the next sleep period. 'Could' here represents an optional action or an ability to do something in the future without the obligation of doing it immediately. Without knowing the context of the sentence, it is difficult to say whether the mood is subjunctive or, strictly speaking, optative. 'Could' is normally the past tense of 'to be able to' ('can' and 'could' are residual parts of an extinct verb). Since the subject of the verb is 'She', it would usually be assumed that this is a relation of events that happened in the past, making the mood indicative. It would usually be assumed, in other words, that, if the lady were to express her own thoughts at that point, she would have said "I can sew the veil on properly in the morning." To try to clarify the difference between the tenses and moods in English, compare these sentences: "I can sew the veil on properly in the morning." - Present, Indicative ( = "I am able to defer the proper sewing on of the veil and will do so") The emphasis is on the deferral of the job. "I could sew the veil on properly in the morning." - Present, Conditional (= "It might be possible/easier to complete the job properly later") The emphasis may be (a) on completing the job properly or (b) if the statement were followed by "but I will do it now", on the feasibility or available choice of doing it later. "Oh that [If only] I could sew the veil on properly!" - Past, Optative Note that the last sentence is identical with: "Oh, that I were able to sew the veil on properly!" which makes it clearer that it is actually in the past tense (referring to an ability which would have to have already been learned in order to fulfil the wish). "I must take care that I sew the veil on properly in the morning!" - "I sew" is, potentially, Present, Subjunctive Note that I have to say "potentially" because "I sew" looks as though it could be a present indicative. It would be clearer that it was actually in the subjunctive if the sentence were in the third person singular: "She must take care that she sew the veil on properly in the morning!" Many English speakers would think that sounds "odd", "old-fashioned" or even "incorrect" and would prefer "that she sews". There is evidence that the tenses in each mood were more clearly defined in older Indo-European languages but that the many different forms are being actively lost in English so that the subjunctive mood, in particular, is quite difficult to identify. Forms such as "... that I be ..." and "... if he were ..." are often the only remnants and are almost idiomatic rather than being perceived to be in a different mood. _______________________________________________________ I leave you to puzzle over the moods and tenses involved in my sentence: "It would be clearer that it was actually in the subjunctive if the sentence were in the third person singular."
3 people like this
• Terre Haute, Indiana
12 Oct 13
correct
@dennislv (134)
• Shanghai, China
14 Oct 13
One more qeustion: which word or words does "properly" in the sentence modify? Does it modify "sew the veil on" or "could". In other words, Does the sentence mean "she could properly sew the veil on in the morning", or "she could sew the veil properly on in the morning"?
@owlwings (43910)
• Cambridge, England
14 Oct 13
@dennislv It modifies the action of 'sewing on the veil', not the 'being able to ... '. As you see, there are a number of correct positions an adverb can have. In the original sentence, it is placed after the complex verb structure (the object of the verb 'the veil' is placed closer to the verb because it is of a higher priority than the adverb). In your two sentences above, 'properly' precedes the verb it modifies in the first one, which is also correct word order; in the second sentence, it splits two intimately related words ('veil' and 'on') and so is incorrect syntax. Verbs which have an associated following preposition, like 'to sew on', 'to put on', 'to take off', are treated as whole entities though the object of the verb may either directly follow the verb itself OR follow the preposition. Usually, this makes little or no difference to the sense: "I have put the dress on." is almost identical in meaning to "I have put on the dress." If anything the only difference is in which word is the most important - in the first example, 'the dress' is emphasised by 'weakening' the bond between 'put' and 'on'; in the second example, the action of 'putting on' is very slightly stronger because the verb and the associated preposition are close together. Very often a speaker will use the two interchangeably without any conscious emphasis either way. The action and its object (in whichever order the object and pronoun are used) are, however, a syntactical unit which cannot be broken by the insertion of an adverb.
1 person likes this
@mythociate (21432)
• Oklahoma City, Oklahoma
12 Oct 13
It depends on the context (the reason why the New Living Testament Bible is written phrase-by-phrase for the most part: because much of the meaning is held in the context). It sounds like 'she decided not to finish the veil now, because "she could finish it properly in the morning."'
1 person likes this