Important question regarding to doctrine of SALVATION.

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According to the Bible, in Ephesians 2:8-9 says "For by grace you have been saved through faith and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God, not of works, lest anyone should boast.If interpret this verse literally, it can be mean impliedly that through faith ALONE a man can be save from his sin and be with God in heaven after the Phisical death.But since i've read the book of james in the bible especially in chapter 2:14-26, there we can found out that Faith Without WORKS is dead. It means to say that Faith cannot be alone in saving person, and a person can be saved trough faith plus works. Most of the theologians, especially martin luther, concluded that the Bible is fully inspired by God, and it is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness, or it means to say that the Bible is free from error, enerant and infallible. Now my question is this, if the bible is fully inspired and free from error, infallible and inerant, why is it that paul, the author of the book of ephesians, said implidely that it is trough faith and not of works, or it means faith w/out works that a man can be saved from sin, while james, the author of the book of james, said explicitely that faith without works is dead. Which one of them is true? If both of them are contradicting to each other, which i am scarely accepted, Therefore it means to say that the bible are contradicting to each other??? Therefore if the bible are contradicting each other, Paul was lying??I don't think so. I am encourage you my dear christians to discuss what you've believe regarding to this conflict arises in the bible. Thank you Very much.