The Bible's views On Slavery & Subjugation of Women
By mtbkanata
@mtbkanata (248)
Canada
December 10, 2006 6:03pm CST
Found this on the web... really makes you wonder why some things are to be taken literally and others are not... what do these really mean (From you christians out there)?
Ephesians 5:22-24
Wives, submit to your husbands as to the Lord. For the husband is the head of the wife as Christ is the head of the church, his body, of which he is the Savior. Now as the church submits to Christ, so also wives should submit to their husbands in everything.
Exodus 21:20-21
If a man beats his male or female slave with a rod and the slave dies as a direct result, he must be punished, but he is not to be punished if the slave gets up after a day or two, since the slave is his property.
1 Peter 2:13
Submit yourselves for the Lord’s sake to every authority instituted among men.
2:18
Slaves, submit yourselves to your masters with all respect, not only to those who are good and considerate, but also to those who are harsh.
Leviticus 25:44-45
Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property.
19 responses
@emarie (5442)
• United States
11 Dec 06
again, the bible was written in olden times and things were different back that, which is why you should take the bible litterally...there are 2 different types of christians, those who believe the bible is the word of god and those who believe that the bible was written by man about how they saw god and the life of jesus, mainly basing their writtings on their own beliefs.
@mtbkanata (248)
• Canada
11 Dec 06
So how do you choose what to read as literal, and what to read as figurative?
It seems that a lot of the stuff you need in the news today, like views on gay marriage, and views on abortion are taken as literal from the bible...
So how do you know what's what?
@mtbkanata (248)
• Canada
11 Dec 06
So in catholic the pope can say what the bible means? But not in christian?Christian is only about 30% of the world.. the other 70% of the world population believe in something else, or nothing else. Please see the pie chart I added.
@psyche_shivya (879)
• India
11 Dec 06
well nice thread...i do have to tell u some other things....when abel and cane had come to give offerings to god, god accepted sheep and not the fruits and grains....is this god, who doesn't care about his own animals and this thing about slaves...its disgusting man
@mtbkanata (248)
• Canada
12 Dec 06
Let's not forget one HUGE problem with the bible.
It's been translated a million times...
It wasn't written in English, and no two translations are exactly the same. So that being said, how can you take anything in the bible as literal?
@mtbkanata (248)
• Canada
11 Dec 06
I agree with you 100% ... Humans are by very definition flawed... that can be seen in all our works.
@vipul20044 (5793)
• India
11 Dec 06
Although the Bible includes great wisdom and has been a positive source of guidance throughout the centuries, it also has passages that have been responsible for the subjugation and degradation of women.
And yes you are right there are so many versus
I mean why do they have to discriminate a being from the others when they have the same properties,potential and literally everything
If you see a pretty woman among your captives and would like her for a wife, then bring her home and "go in unto her." Later, if you decide you don't like her, you can simply "let her go." (Deuteronomy 21:11-14)
Isnt it really sick?
@blilley7 (196)
• United States
13 Dec 06
Here's the rest of the Deuternomy saga, and again, remembering that this was the 'pre-Christ' era. The setting is during war,and the woman is a virgin. (Otherwise she wouldn't have been humbled as in verse 14) So, a soldier in a foreign country sees a woman he finds irrestible, allows her a month to mourn the loss of her parents, and yet cannot accept her new and war torn husband....and so, the law is written. If after all, and for whatever reason, perhaps forced marraige ? all is not well, a way for her to leave her captors is given and acceped. Note the vehemence that she is NOT allowed to be sold. And still, this is pre-Christ. :)
@deeds14 (815)
• United States
11 Dec 06
Slaves were a reality then, so the Bible was made applicable to all men. Jesus was available to the highest of kings and the lowest of slaves. The point is that whatever role you have, fulfill it to the best of your ability.
As for the Ephesians verse, I'm not sure what's the trouble with it. It says for wives to submit to their husbands, and also says for husbands to respect their wives (not enough was pasted).
@deeds14 (815)
• United States
11 Dec 06
Exactly, men and women are to respect each other equally.
Slavery during Biblical times was very different than slavery a few centuries ago. It was often used to repay debts, and doctors and lawyers would be slaves, too. It was not based on race. The Bible had many rules on how to treat slaves fairly. The Bible definately speaks out against race-based slavery. Jesus didn't have slaves; he just had disciples, who willingly followed Him.
The Bible points the way to our salvation, and although it may not be socially the same as modern times, the main message still rings true today!
@mtbkanata (248)
• Canada
11 Dec 06
I apologize for not posting the whole verse.. I don't have a bible, so I was posting what I found online.
So that verse then is more that the woman should submit to the man, but then he should offer the same respect? As in both work together as equals? That I would agree to.
Did the bible have an opinion on slaves? It would seem to be counter to the bibles preaching, as no man would do onto someone that action which they did not want done to themselves..
Did jesus have any slaves?
@mtbkanata (248)
• Canada
11 Dec 06
So the bible says you can have slaves, but not race-based slaves.. how does that work? You can only have a slave of your same race?
@gloria777 (1674)
• India
11 Dec 06
A good question. Please note the comments mentioned on Bible should not be taken literally. Every quotation/comments are made according to that particular context, culture and situation. So it differs according to context.
@blilley7 (196)
• United States
13 Dec 06
I think that previous responses have helped answer your question. To know what is literal and what isn't, or what was literal for other times, you have to either learn with your own studies - concordance, internet, reading the Bible while asking God His intent and meaning, (and still the entire Bible should be read to know what God's views are - so you can determine if some 'studies' you read are false) or you can trust what others, like me or anyone else, has to say. The final authority is God, not me nor any one else. If God says that killing another human is wrong, believe Him. If a human tries to convince you otherwise when you KNOW what God says, get away from that person....or try to dissuade them from their erroneous thinking. Always, how we respond, remains our choice.
@mtbkanata (248)
• Canada
11 Dec 06
That was my exact question.. how do you determine what should be literal and what should be figurative? Is there an index to follow? That's the problem with a 2000-year old document.. it becomes dated and less relevant as time passes.
@gokufatherofgohan (72)
• United States
11 Dec 06
Christian is only about 30% of the world.. the other 70% of the world population believe in something else, or nothing else. Please see the pie chart I added.The point is that whatever role you have, fulfill it to the best of your ability.
The Chinese suffered a similar fate later in the century, though not so severe. And the churches back then misquoted the scriptures to give mandate to that dastardly act.
On to women:
The Bible (not just the Ephesians text) gives man the position of headship and women were to be subject to that headship - be it subjecting to a husband if she has one, or subjecting to the elders if in a congregation.
@Asylum (47893)
• Manchester, England
11 Dec 06
The point to remember is that the Bible was written not only a long time ago but over a span of several millenia. The idea of women voting and being treated as equals was even unthinkable only a few centuries ago, and slavery was a prolific and respectable practice a couple of centuries ago as well. This type of reference is inevitable in the Bible, unless the whole thing is totally rewritten as a modern version that would invalidate most of it.
Nevertheless, I like the examples that you quote and the Ephesians 5 vs 22 to 24 will prove very useful for annoying people with.
@thatcrazyqbanita (3312)
• United States
11 Dec 06
the bible supports slavery and inequality between men and women. yes, it was written in a different time period, but that does not justify such atrocious acts.
@bertus_magnus (329)
• Philippines
12 Dec 06
supporting slavery is different from making laws based on present culture. if the bible supports slavery, we would have seen passages that endorse it, like "thou shalt make every man, that is not your kin, your slave, for it is good." now we all know there are no slavery endorsements in the bible, only guidelines and laws regarding it.
@emeraldisle (13139)
• United States
13 Dec 06
With the bible one must take two things into account. Now when I say all this please realize I was raised Roman Catholic.
First, as my one teacher who was a priest stated, the bible was written by men under Roman law. So realize that many things stated in there were by what was acceptable by Rome at the time. The men that wrote the bible were upsetting the laws enough by preaching about One God over many. They weren't going to risk even more by saying the laws about women, slaves etc needed to be changed.
The second is that the bible was written over 2,000 years ago and then translated and copied for years. The parts of it that we read are the approved writings that the church and others could agree on. Who knows how it has been changed or altered, let alone what might have been left out. We know some of the parts because of the Apocrypha but there were 12 apostles and yet we don't have writings from all of them. That alone should make you wonder.
Overall I'd say not worry about the parts that you find conflicting with your moral conscious about women and slaves. Most of these were designed to support the laws and beliefs of the times, either Roman or later during the acceptance period.
@nishanity (1650)
• India
11 Dec 06
hey bible was a book written by any godly figure... it was created and edited by men like us,who wanted some kind of reassurance tht thr was god...so they come up wid this boook and say tht its the ultimate truth... and everyone knows tht men were chauvinists(those days and today!) they just wanted to suppress everyone else while uplifting themselves... thts all this is abt... total nonsense
@bertus_magnus (329)
• Philippines
11 Dec 06
first of all, before trying to interpret biblical scriptures, one must first study what is the context of the scriptures. and second you should consider the time this was written, and what culture is intwined in this scriptures.
in the old testament, or in the olden times for that matter, slavery was common and is not a breach of human rights. God favored his people, the israelites, who worship Him.
now in the new testament, especially after the splitting of the covers of the Holy of Holies (research on this one), the new testament gospels and epistles preached kindness to all of man, to treat every man like you would have him treat you. you see that the context is different from the old testament. the new testament is a big factor in developing what we now call human rights. so before you dismiss the scriptures as false, or inhuman, please study it first.
@estherlou (5015)
• United States
11 Dec 06
Also...what is referred to as slavery, or having slaves is what we would call today as having servants, isn't that right?
@arseniajoaquin (1732)
• Philippines
13 Dec 06
Wives are under the authority of the husband, that's what the Bible says. As the church is the bride and Christ is the head and the church submits to Christ.
In the olden times, slaves are property and therefore could be bought and/or sold. In fact Joseph was sold in Egypt and became a slave. A slave as a property could not do what he wants - he has to follow the owner, the one who bought him. This is why servants of God are called slaves of Christ - they must obey because Christ bought them with a price and not just ordinary because the price is His blood.
In our time now, there are practically no more slaves. People are no longer considered as commodities to be sold or disposed of at the pleasure of the owner.
BUT I am a slave - a slave of Christ.
I hope this could help to elucidate matters. May God bless you. SEN
@gokufatherofgohan (72)
• United States
13 Dec 06
The point is that whatever role you have, fulfill it to the best of your ability.So the bible says you can have slaves, but not race-based slaves.. how does that work? You can only have a slave of your same race?
@pvleroux (606)
•
13 Dec 06
With the coming of Christ so many things changed. Freedom was brought to life. It is always so important to look at Scripture in context and see why it was written. Obviously the words for the Ephesiens, as they must have had a problem with this and this is why Paul is writing this to them. At the end of the day, God is a God of order and therefore there are different positions in life. It is not to say that women is slaves to their husbands but they have more responibilites when it comes to marriage. They must be the head of the family and should have the last say if it is of course not against God's will that is.Women should not see this as being slaves and I think if you love each other then it wont be seen as this and if you base your marriage on Christian life and principles and together always look for His will then you will not see it as slavery. We all belong to Christ and He loves us all. Women should be glad to sometimes dwell on the decisions of their husbands and know that the husband must one day answer to his decisions in life.
In all each verse must be read in context and see who it was written to and for what reason. Men is however the head of the family as Christ is the head of the church but the man must submit himself to the Lord in everything he does as well. It does not only go one way but both ways. You will know if your husband is seeking the will of the Lord before he makes a decision..... Hope I could help in some of your questions?
@owlwings (43910)
• Cambridge, England
11 Dec 06
I think that the only quotation amongst them which can or should be used is:
1 Peter 2:13
Submit yourselves for the Lord’s sake to every authority instituted among men.
Jesus said: "Render unto Caesar that which is Caesars and unto God, that which is God's"
The other passages were written interpreting the same injunction as it applied to circumstances at the time. Today (in Europe and the USA) our official culture dictates that to pretend to 'own' another man or woman as a slave infringes human rights and that women have equal rights to men both in the home and out of it. Unfortunately, this is frequently not borne out in practice and slavery is sometimes effectual, if not actual, and many men (and women) still feel that the wife should subjugate herself to the husband.
@scorpius (1792)
• India
11 Dec 06
the bible was written a very long time ago when the society was male dominated.it still is today in many countries,like in the islamic world.so one cannot realy fault the bible for preaching what sounded right back then.of course if some preacher preaches what you have ssaid above thats different.that person should be made to realise that the world has changed.there are a lot of people in today's world that still stick to the old dogma of man rules over everything even women.
but many people are being educated and this is slowly changing.but also there are some countries where the women are treated as mere chattel,like in pakistan.but even in pakistan,there are some welcome changes like the changes to the infamous rape law!
what you have mentioned above is/was practised not only by christianity but many other religions all over the world and some still do it to this day.
remember the burkah!
http://atheism.about.com/od/womenandreligion/Women_and_Religion_News_on_Women_Sexism_and_Feminism_in_Religion.htm
http://www.womensenews.org/article.cfm?aid=2399
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/entrez/query.fcgi?cmd=Retrieve&db=PubMed&list_uids=12178911&dopt=Abstract
@jricbt (1454)
• Brazil
11 Dec 06
Good discussion.
That is exactly what I like on the bible. Slavery, Bigotry, Genocides (sodoma).
Mainly the fundamentalists will claim that the holy ghost inspires them to what to believe literally or not, at least in public. In private some of them may tend to take ALL literally and in what condition a wife of such a man will be.
@dexterous21 (1180)
• Philippines
11 Dec 06
We can question everything about the bible because we have different interpretations. I myself is skeptical about this. But we must respect others beliefs.
@sathyaprakashg (257)
• India
11 Dec 06
useful info on bible. check out my info on bible.
According to the Online Etymology Dictionary the word bible[3] is from Anglo-Latin biblia, traced from the same word through Medieval Latin and Late Latin, as used in the phrase biblia sacra ("holy books"). This then stemmed from the term (Greek: t? ß?ß??a t? ???a ta biblia ta hagia, "the holy books"), which derived from biblion ("paper" or "scroll", the ordinary word for "book"), which was originally a diminutive of byblos ("Egyptian papyrus"), possibly so called from the name of the Phoenician port from which Egyptian papyrus was exported to Greece.
Biblical scholar Mark Hamilton states that the Greek phrase ta biblia ("the books") was "an expression Hellenistic Jews used to describe their sacred books several centuries before the time of Jesus[4]," and would have referred to the Septuagint[5]. The Online Etymology Dictionary states, "The Christian scripture was referred to in [Greek] as Ta Biblia as early as c.223."
The Online Etymology Dictionary continues ststing that the word "Bible" replaced Old English biblioðece ("the Scriptures") from the Greek bibliotheke (lit. "book-repository" from biblion + theke, meaning "case, chest, or sheath"), used by Jerome and the common Latin word for it until Biblia began to displace it 9c. Use of the word in a figurative sense, as in "any authoritative book," is from 1804.